So I’m over at the Boston Public Library again today, and I notice something. Somebody correct my knowledge, which I’m pulling strictly out of my brain. I was under the impression that dear W S never actually spelled his own name as “Shakespeare” the way we do. Is this correct? What I noticed at the BPL exhibit is that nearly all of the books, First Folios and Quartos alike, all clearly spell it Shakespeare (sometimes Shake-Speare), with a small handful of exceptions. How’d that happen, exactly? When did we standardize on the Shakespeare spelling, and was it while the man was still alive? I would have believed that the Folios, published after his death, might have evolved the spelling in the years that passed. But most of the Quartos, published in WS’s lifetime, spell it that way as well. I googled quickly and found this portion of the authorship debate, but truthfully I’m at work and don’t have the time or patience to wade through it. So I turn instead to my audience. Who’s got the scoop?